How strong is the axiom of well-ordered choice?Why is the Axiom of Well-ordered Choice not strong enough to prove Zorn's Lemma?No uncountable ordinals without the axiom of choice?Axiom of choice , Hartogs ordinals, well-ordering principleWhich sets are well-orderable without Axiom of Choice?Well-orderings of $mathbb R$ without Choice“There is no well-ordered uncountable set of real numbers”Axiom of choice and the well ordering principleThe class of well-founded sets satisfies the axiom of foundation and the axiom of choiceAxiom of Choice is equivalent to Well-ordering Theorem: Hrbacek, Jech - “Introduction to Set Theory”the power set of every well-ordered set is well-ordered implies well orderingHow strong are weak choice principles?

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How strong is the axiom of well-ordered choice?


Why is the Axiom of Well-ordered Choice not strong enough to prove Zorn's Lemma?No uncountable ordinals without the axiom of choice?Axiom of choice , Hartogs ordinals, well-ordering principleWhich sets are well-orderable without Axiom of Choice?Well-orderings of $mathbb R$ without Choice“There is no well-ordered uncountable set of real numbers”Axiom of choice and the well ordering principleThe class of well-founded sets satisfies the axiom of foundation and the axiom of choiceAxiom of Choice is equivalent to Well-ordering Theorem: Hrbacek, Jech - “Introduction to Set Theory”the power set of every well-ordered set is well-ordered implies well orderingHow strong are weak choice principles?













11












$begingroup$


I sometimes see references to the "Axiom of Well-Ordered Choice," but I'm not sure how strong it is. It states that every well-ordered family of sets has a choice function.



By "well-ordered family," I don't mean that the sets within the family are well-ordered, but that the family must index all the sets within the family by some ordinal.



How strong is this axiom? Can it prove the Hahn-Banach theorem, the ultrafilter lemma, anything about measurable sets, etc? Does it have any implications about what sets can be well-ordered (the reals for instance), or perhaps prove anything about the Hartogs number of sets, etc?



Does anyone have a reference for this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    ...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Battaglia
    Mar 8 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:50










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    Mar 8 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 8 at 20:56















11












$begingroup$


I sometimes see references to the "Axiom of Well-Ordered Choice," but I'm not sure how strong it is. It states that every well-ordered family of sets has a choice function.



By "well-ordered family," I don't mean that the sets within the family are well-ordered, but that the family must index all the sets within the family by some ordinal.



How strong is this axiom? Can it prove the Hahn-Banach theorem, the ultrafilter lemma, anything about measurable sets, etc? Does it have any implications about what sets can be well-ordered (the reals for instance), or perhaps prove anything about the Hartogs number of sets, etc?



Does anyone have a reference for this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    ...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Battaglia
    Mar 8 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:50










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    Mar 8 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 8 at 20:56













11












11








11


1



$begingroup$


I sometimes see references to the "Axiom of Well-Ordered Choice," but I'm not sure how strong it is. It states that every well-ordered family of sets has a choice function.



By "well-ordered family," I don't mean that the sets within the family are well-ordered, but that the family must index all the sets within the family by some ordinal.



How strong is this axiom? Can it prove the Hahn-Banach theorem, the ultrafilter lemma, anything about measurable sets, etc? Does it have any implications about what sets can be well-ordered (the reals for instance), or perhaps prove anything about the Hartogs number of sets, etc?



Does anyone have a reference for this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I sometimes see references to the "Axiom of Well-Ordered Choice," but I'm not sure how strong it is. It states that every well-ordered family of sets has a choice function.



By "well-ordered family," I don't mean that the sets within the family are well-ordered, but that the family must index all the sets within the family by some ordinal.



How strong is this axiom? Can it prove the Hahn-Banach theorem, the ultrafilter lemma, anything about measurable sets, etc? Does it have any implications about what sets can be well-ordered (the reals for instance), or perhaps prove anything about the Hartogs number of sets, etc?



Does anyone have a reference for this?







set-theory axiom-of-choice foundations well-orders






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 8 at 22:00







Mike Battaglia

















asked Mar 8 at 20:22









Mike BattagliaMike Battaglia

1,5421128




1,5421128











  • $begingroup$
    ...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Battaglia
    Mar 8 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:50










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    Mar 8 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 8 at 20:56
















  • $begingroup$
    ...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:46






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Battaglia
    Mar 8 at 20:47










  • $begingroup$
    Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Steven Stadnicki
    Mar 8 at 20:50










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Shore
    Mar 8 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Mummert
    Mar 8 at 20:56















$begingroup$
...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Mar 8 at 20:46




$begingroup$
...isn't this axiom a consequence of ZF? One can choose the (well-defined, since it's well-ordered) lexicographically least element of each set in the family...
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Mar 8 at 20:46




2




2




$begingroup$
That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
$endgroup$
– Mike Battaglia
Mar 8 at 20:47




$begingroup$
That is a family of well-ordered sets, not a well-ordered family of (arbitrary sets).
$endgroup$
– Mike Battaglia
Mar 8 at 20:47












$begingroup$
Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Mar 8 at 20:50




$begingroup$
Ahh, I missed that distinction. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Steven Stadnicki
Mar 8 at 20:50












$begingroup$
I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 8 at 20:55




$begingroup$
I've never seen this axiom before. Does the family itself need to be a set or can it be a proper class?
$endgroup$
– Robert Shore
Mar 8 at 20:55












$begingroup$
Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 8 at 20:56




$begingroup$
Google suggests this: settheory.mathtalks.org/andreas-blass-well-ordered-choice
$endgroup$
– Carl Mummert
Mar 8 at 20:56










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















9












$begingroup$

The axiom of well-ordered choice, or $sf AC_rm WO$, is strictly weaker than the axiom of choice itself. If we start with $L$ and add $omega_1$ Cohen reals, then go to $L(Bbb R)$, one can show that $sf AC_rm WO$ holds, while $Bbb R$ cannot be well-ordered there.



Pincus proved in the 1970s that this is equivalent to the following statement on Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers:




$sf AC_rm WO$ is equivalent to the statement $forall x.aleph(x)=aleph^*(x)$.




Here, the Lindenbaum number, $aleph^*(x)$, is the least ordinal which $x$ cannot be mapped onto. One obvious fact is that $aleph(x)leqaleph^*(x)$.



In the late 1950s or early 1960s Jensen proved that this assumption also implies $sf DC$. This is also a very clever proof.



The conjunction of these two consequences gives us that $aleph_1leq 2^aleph_0$, as a result of a theorem of Shelah from the 1980s, this implies there is a non-measurable set of reals.



As far as Hahn–Banach, or other things of that sort, I do not believe that much is known on the topic. But to sum up, this axiom does not imply that the reals are well-ordered, but it does imply there is a non-measurable set of reals because there is a set of reals of size $aleph_1$ and $sf DC$ holds. Moreover, it is equivalent to saying that the Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers are equal for all sets.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 8 at 23:14







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 8 at 23:26











  • $begingroup$
    (The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 9 at 8:52










  • $begingroup$
    thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 9 at 16:43











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









9












$begingroup$

The axiom of well-ordered choice, or $sf AC_rm WO$, is strictly weaker than the axiom of choice itself. If we start with $L$ and add $omega_1$ Cohen reals, then go to $L(Bbb R)$, one can show that $sf AC_rm WO$ holds, while $Bbb R$ cannot be well-ordered there.



Pincus proved in the 1970s that this is equivalent to the following statement on Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers:




$sf AC_rm WO$ is equivalent to the statement $forall x.aleph(x)=aleph^*(x)$.




Here, the Lindenbaum number, $aleph^*(x)$, is the least ordinal which $x$ cannot be mapped onto. One obvious fact is that $aleph(x)leqaleph^*(x)$.



In the late 1950s or early 1960s Jensen proved that this assumption also implies $sf DC$. This is also a very clever proof.



The conjunction of these two consequences gives us that $aleph_1leq 2^aleph_0$, as a result of a theorem of Shelah from the 1980s, this implies there is a non-measurable set of reals.



As far as Hahn–Banach, or other things of that sort, I do not believe that much is known on the topic. But to sum up, this axiom does not imply that the reals are well-ordered, but it does imply there is a non-measurable set of reals because there is a set of reals of size $aleph_1$ and $sf DC$ holds. Moreover, it is equivalent to saying that the Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers are equal for all sets.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 8 at 23:14







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 8 at 23:26











  • $begingroup$
    (The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 9 at 8:52










  • $begingroup$
    thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 9 at 16:43















9












$begingroup$

The axiom of well-ordered choice, or $sf AC_rm WO$, is strictly weaker than the axiom of choice itself. If we start with $L$ and add $omega_1$ Cohen reals, then go to $L(Bbb R)$, one can show that $sf AC_rm WO$ holds, while $Bbb R$ cannot be well-ordered there.



Pincus proved in the 1970s that this is equivalent to the following statement on Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers:




$sf AC_rm WO$ is equivalent to the statement $forall x.aleph(x)=aleph^*(x)$.




Here, the Lindenbaum number, $aleph^*(x)$, is the least ordinal which $x$ cannot be mapped onto. One obvious fact is that $aleph(x)leqaleph^*(x)$.



In the late 1950s or early 1960s Jensen proved that this assumption also implies $sf DC$. This is also a very clever proof.



The conjunction of these two consequences gives us that $aleph_1leq 2^aleph_0$, as a result of a theorem of Shelah from the 1980s, this implies there is a non-measurable set of reals.



As far as Hahn–Banach, or other things of that sort, I do not believe that much is known on the topic. But to sum up, this axiom does not imply that the reals are well-ordered, but it does imply there is a non-measurable set of reals because there is a set of reals of size $aleph_1$ and $sf DC$ holds. Moreover, it is equivalent to saying that the Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers are equal for all sets.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 8 at 23:14







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 8 at 23:26











  • $begingroup$
    (The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 9 at 8:52










  • $begingroup$
    thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 9 at 16:43













9












9








9





$begingroup$

The axiom of well-ordered choice, or $sf AC_rm WO$, is strictly weaker than the axiom of choice itself. If we start with $L$ and add $omega_1$ Cohen reals, then go to $L(Bbb R)$, one can show that $sf AC_rm WO$ holds, while $Bbb R$ cannot be well-ordered there.



Pincus proved in the 1970s that this is equivalent to the following statement on Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers:




$sf AC_rm WO$ is equivalent to the statement $forall x.aleph(x)=aleph^*(x)$.




Here, the Lindenbaum number, $aleph^*(x)$, is the least ordinal which $x$ cannot be mapped onto. One obvious fact is that $aleph(x)leqaleph^*(x)$.



In the late 1950s or early 1960s Jensen proved that this assumption also implies $sf DC$. This is also a very clever proof.



The conjunction of these two consequences gives us that $aleph_1leq 2^aleph_0$, as a result of a theorem of Shelah from the 1980s, this implies there is a non-measurable set of reals.



As far as Hahn–Banach, or other things of that sort, I do not believe that much is known on the topic. But to sum up, this axiom does not imply that the reals are well-ordered, but it does imply there is a non-measurable set of reals because there is a set of reals of size $aleph_1$ and $sf DC$ holds. Moreover, it is equivalent to saying that the Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers are equal for all sets.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The axiom of well-ordered choice, or $sf AC_rm WO$, is strictly weaker than the axiom of choice itself. If we start with $L$ and add $omega_1$ Cohen reals, then go to $L(Bbb R)$, one can show that $sf AC_rm WO$ holds, while $Bbb R$ cannot be well-ordered there.



Pincus proved in the 1970s that this is equivalent to the following statement on Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers:




$sf AC_rm WO$ is equivalent to the statement $forall x.aleph(x)=aleph^*(x)$.




Here, the Lindenbaum number, $aleph^*(x)$, is the least ordinal which $x$ cannot be mapped onto. One obvious fact is that $aleph(x)leqaleph^*(x)$.



In the late 1950s or early 1960s Jensen proved that this assumption also implies $sf DC$. This is also a very clever proof.



The conjunction of these two consequences gives us that $aleph_1leq 2^aleph_0$, as a result of a theorem of Shelah from the 1980s, this implies there is a non-measurable set of reals.



As far as Hahn–Banach, or other things of that sort, I do not believe that much is known on the topic. But to sum up, this axiom does not imply that the reals are well-ordered, but it does imply there is a non-measurable set of reals because there is a set of reals of size $aleph_1$ and $sf DC$ holds. Moreover, it is equivalent to saying that the Hartogs and Lindenbaum numbers are equal for all sets.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 8 at 22:15









Asaf KaragilaAsaf Karagila

307k33441774




307k33441774











  • $begingroup$
    Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 8 at 23:14







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 8 at 23:26











  • $begingroup$
    (The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 9 at 8:52










  • $begingroup$
    thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 9 at 16:43
















  • $begingroup$
    Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 8 at 23:14







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 8 at 23:26











  • $begingroup$
    (The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Mar 9 at 8:52










  • $begingroup$
    thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Mar 9 at 16:43















$begingroup$
Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Mar 8 at 23:14





$begingroup$
Do you have a source for a proof of $sf AC_rm WOiff forall x(aleph(x)=aleph^*(x))$?
$endgroup$
– Holo
Mar 8 at 23:14





2




2




$begingroup$
@Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Mar 8 at 23:26





$begingroup$
@Holo karagila.org/2014/on-the-partition-principle
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Mar 8 at 23:26













$begingroup$
(The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Mar 9 at 8:52




$begingroup$
(The proof there assumes PP, but really you only use that for maps onto ordinals, which is the same as saying $aleph=aleph^*$.)
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Mar 9 at 8:52












$begingroup$
thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Holo
Mar 9 at 16:43




$begingroup$
thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– Holo
Mar 9 at 16:43

















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