A peculiar integral identityVerification of integral over $exp(cos x + sin x)$Integral $int_0^infty fracsin xcosh ax+cos xfracxx^2-pi^2dx=tan^-1left(frac1aright)-frac1a$Sine and Bessel integral extension to imaginary argumentChanging argument into complex in the integral of Bessel multiplied by cosineDerivation of Gradshteyn and Ryzhik integral 3.876.1 (in question)Simpler proof of an integral representation of Bessel function of the first kind $J_n(x)$Fourier Cosine Transform (Parseval Identity) for definite integralA definite integral of the exponential of cosIs there any way to evaluate $int_0^infty cos(bx) sinh(pi x) left[ K_ix(a) right]^2 , dx?$A definite integral on a circle with Bessel functions
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A peculiar integral identity
Verification of integral over $exp(cos x + sin x)$Integral $int_0^infty fracsin xcosh ax+cos xfracxx^2-pi^2dx=tan^-1left(frac1aright)-frac1a$Sine and Bessel integral extension to imaginary argumentChanging argument into complex in the integral of Bessel multiplied by cosineDerivation of Gradshteyn and Ryzhik integral 3.876.1 (in question)Simpler proof of an integral representation of Bessel function of the first kind $J_n(x)$Fourier Cosine Transform (Parseval Identity) for definite integralA definite integral of the exponential of cosIs there any way to evaluate $int_0^infty cos(bx) sinh(pi x) left[ K_ix(a) right]^2 , dx?$A definite integral on a circle with Bessel functions
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_theta(t) = e^cos theta cos t cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^v cos t dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^pi tf_theta(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_theta$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_theta(t) = e^cos theta cos t cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^v cos t dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^pi tf_theta(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_theta$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
1
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_theta(t) = e^cos theta cos t cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^v cos t dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^pi tf_theta(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_theta$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
$endgroup$
Here I was, innocently trying to solve this daunting-looking integral
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt $$
when the inner beauty behind this beast slowly started to disclose itself.
Of course, the first thing I did, was checking if WolframAlpha can help, futilely.
Next on my lookup table was Gradshteyn and Ryzhik. Yet again, the god of integrals had no mercy upon me and I was left to my own device.
To get a first impression I plotted the function, that needs to be integrated, that is for $f_theta(t) = e^cos theta cos t cosh(sin theta sin t)$, we get the following plots:
Okay, nothing too special about that. So I proceeded by trying to numerically evaluate the integral itself. And then, something strange happened...
Turns out the integral is invariant under $theta$!
Even better, we have
$$int_0^pi e^v cos theta cos t cosh(v sin theta sin t) dt = int_0^pi e^v cos t dt = pi I_0(v)quad forall theta in [-pi,pi]; ,$$
where for the first equality I just set $theta = 0$ and the second equality is a known identity of the modified Bessel function of the first kind. Now, I only stumbled upon this identity numerically, and I was wondering if someone can share some analytical wisdom regarding this. Put into a question:
Does someone know, why this identity holds?
Bonus
I now face the same integral but with an additional linear term, that is
$$int_0^pi tf_theta(t)dt ; ,$$
with $f_theta$ as defined above. I am hoping that the techniques that illuminate the identity above will also shed some light at this new integral, which by the way is not constant in $theta$ anymore.
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
integration trigonometry definite-integrals bessel-functions
edited Mar 6 at 23:03
chickenNinja123
asked Mar 6 at 22:32
chickenNinja123chickenNinja123
11413
11413
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
1
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
1
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
1
1
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
beginalign*e^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t+e^vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t)right)endalign*
Now we integrate that:
beginalign*int_0^pie^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^pie^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t),dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt+int_-pi^0e^vcos(theta+s),dsright)\
&=frac12int_-pi^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt = frac12int_-pi-theta^pi-thetae^vcos s,dsendalign*
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^vcos s$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^vcos t$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
beginalign*I(v) &= frac12piint_0^2pie^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picosthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picos^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12pileft[sinthetacdot e^vcosthetaright]_theta=0^theta=2pi +frac12piint_0^2pisinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= fracv2piint_0^2pisin^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dthetaendalign*
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^vcos(theta-t)$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_-pi^pi|t|cdot e^vcos(theta+t),dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$beginalign*
I_theta &= frac14int_0^2pie^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt+frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt.
endalign*$$ Because $tmapsto e^vcos t$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^vcos t mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
beginalign*e^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t+e^vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t)right)endalign*
Now we integrate that:
beginalign*int_0^pie^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^pie^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t),dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt+int_-pi^0e^vcos(theta+s),dsright)\
&=frac12int_-pi^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt = frac12int_-pi-theta^pi-thetae^vcos s,dsendalign*
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^vcos s$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^vcos t$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
beginalign*I(v) &= frac12piint_0^2pie^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picosthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picos^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12pileft[sinthetacdot e^vcosthetaright]_theta=0^theta=2pi +frac12piint_0^2pisinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= fracv2piint_0^2pisin^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dthetaendalign*
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^vcos(theta-t)$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_-pi^pi|t|cdot e^vcos(theta+t),dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
beginalign*e^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t+e^vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t)right)endalign*
Now we integrate that:
beginalign*int_0^pie^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^pie^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t),dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt+int_-pi^0e^vcos(theta+s),dsright)\
&=frac12int_-pi^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt = frac12int_-pi-theta^pi-thetae^vcos s,dsendalign*
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^vcos s$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^vcos t$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
beginalign*I(v) &= frac12piint_0^2pie^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picosthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picos^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12pileft[sinthetacdot e^vcosthetaright]_theta=0^theta=2pi +frac12piint_0^2pisinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= fracv2piint_0^2pisin^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dthetaendalign*
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^vcos(theta-t)$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_-pi^pi|t|cdot e^vcos(theta+t),dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
beginalign*e^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t+e^vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t)right)endalign*
Now we integrate that:
beginalign*int_0^pie^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^pie^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t),dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt+int_-pi^0e^vcos(theta+s),dsright)\
&=frac12int_-pi^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt = frac12int_-pi-theta^pi-thetae^vcos s,dsendalign*
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^vcos s$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^vcos t$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
beginalign*I(v) &= frac12piint_0^2pie^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picosthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picos^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12pileft[sinthetacdot e^vcosthetaright]_theta=0^theta=2pi +frac12piint_0^2pisinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= fracv2piint_0^2pisin^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dthetaendalign*
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^vcos(theta-t)$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_-pi^pi|t|cdot e^vcos(theta+t),dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
$endgroup$
For the main problem, a bit of algebra:
beginalign*e^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) &= e^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcosthetacos t+vsinthetasin t+e^vcosthetacos t-vsinthetasin tright)\
&= frac12left(e^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t)right)endalign*
Now we integrate that:
beginalign*int_0^pie^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t),dt &= frac12int_0^pie^vcos(theta-t)+e^vcos(theta+t),dt\
&=frac12left(int_0^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt+int_-pi^0e^vcos(theta+s),dsright)\
&=frac12int_-pi^pie^vcos(theta+t),dt = frac12int_-pi-theta^pi-thetae^vcos s,dsendalign*
Flipping $theta-t$ to $theta+s$ gives us an integral over the other half of the period - and it's the same function, so we just write it as one integral. Then, in that final integral of $e^vcos s$ over one full period, it doesn't matter where that period is; from $-pi$ to $pi$ is the same as from $-pi-theta$ to $pi-theta$.
That leaves us with the Bessel function identity, that the average value of $e^vcos t$ over a full period is $I_0(cos v)$. For this, since Bessel functions are defined by a differential equation, we differentiate (under the integral sign):
beginalign*I(v) &= frac12piint_0^2pie^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picosthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I''(v) &= frac12piint_0^2picos^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= frac12pileft[sinthetacdot e^vcosthetaright]_theta=0^theta=2pi +frac12piint_0^2pisinthetacdot vsinthetacdot e^vcostheta,dtheta\
I'(v) &= fracv2piint_0^2pisin^2thetacdot e^vcostheta,dthetaendalign*
The first three lines are $I$ and its derivatives, calculated the obvious way. Then, in the next two, we apply integration by parts to transform the $I'$ integral into a form that works better with the others. Then, from $cos^2+sin^2=1$, we get $vI''(v)+I'(v)-vI(v)=0$, the modified Bessel equation of order zero. Together with the initial condition $I(0)=1$ (since the average value of $1$ is $1$) and $I'(0)=0$, this gives that $I(v)=I_0(v)$. Done.
A brief note on the bonus question: we can apply the same identities, but we run into trouble when we try to fold over and transform the $e^vcos(theta-t)$ term into an integral over $[-pi,0]$. The way the $t$ factor transforms, we end up with
$$frac12int_-pi^pi|t|cdot e^vcos(theta+t),dt$$
Multiplying by a triangle wave isn't going to come out cleanly. I might look at Fourier series next, but not in this answer.
answered Mar 6 at 23:14
jmerryjmerry
13.1k1628
13.1k1628
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$beginalign*
I_theta &= frac14int_0^2pie^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt+frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt.
endalign*$$ Because $tmapsto e^vcos t$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^vcos t mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$beginalign*
I_theta &= frac14int_0^2pie^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt+frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt.
endalign*$$ Because $tmapsto e^vcos t$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^vcos t mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that
$$beginalign*
I_theta &= frac14int_0^2pie^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt+frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt.
endalign*$$ Because $tmapsto e^vcos t$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^vcos t mathrm dt.
$$
$endgroup$
Note that
$$beginalign*
I_theta &= frac14int_0^2pie^vcosthetacos tleft(e^vsinthetasin t+e^-vsinthetasin tright) mathrm dt\&=frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt+frac14int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt.
endalign*$$ Because $tmapsto e^vcos t$ is $2pi$-periodic, we have
$$
int_0^2pie^vcos(t-theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos(t+theta) mathrm dt=int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt
$$ so it follows that
$$
I_theta = frac 12int_0^2pie^vcos t mathrm dt =int_0^pi e^vcos t mathrm dt.
$$
answered Mar 6 at 23:20
SimonSimon
1635
1635
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
What's $I_0(v)$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
Mar 6 at 23:03
$begingroup$
@YiFan the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
$endgroup$
– chickenNinja123
Mar 6 at 23:06
1
$begingroup$
Did you try using the fact that $colorbluee^vcosthetacos tcosh(vsinthetasin t) =frac12left(e^vcos(t-theta) + e^vcos(t+theta)right)$? (Obtained by using $cosh u = frac12left( e^u + e^-uright)$ and the cosine addition formulas ($cos(Apm B) = cos A cos B mp sin A sin B$))
$endgroup$
– Minus One-Twelfth
Mar 6 at 23:18